o.t. laws
I have yet to meet a theist who has any other response to Ex:21-21 or so, than that that rule was only for back then and not now. I am referring to the verse that explains under which circumstances it is ok to beat ones slave to death. The justification basicly is that the slave owner is already sufficiently punished by loss of property.
Last edited by babrock; 05-07-2011 at 03:25 PM.
Reason: spelling
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